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\begin{itemized} | |
\item $L(x) = f(x) g(h(q(r(x))))$, where $f(x) = \frac{1}{\sigma \sqrt{2 \pi}} \frac{1}{x}$, | |
$g(x) = e^x$, $h(x) = -\frac12 x^2$, $q(x) = \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma}$, and $r(x) = \log(x)$. | |
\item \texttt{f = function(x) exp(-.5*log(x)^2)/x/sqrt(2*pi)} | |
\item \texttt{curve(f, 0, 5)} | |
\item No. We can see this on the graph. Analytically, both $L(.136)$ and $L(.999)$ are roughly equal to .4. | |
\item $f(g(x)) = f(g(y)) \Longleftrightarrow g(x) = g(y) \Longleftrightarrow x = y$. $f, g, q$, and $r$ are 1-1, but $h$ is not. | |
\end{itemized} |
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