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607 FOM Exam 3 practice tests

##607 FOM Exam 3 practice tests

If you find and mistakes or don't understand what a question is asking/why the answer is right, just send me an email.

Any issues will be posted here rather than through email.

##Answers are posted below

Note: every answer is followed by "Wrong Correct", but they are all the correct answers. This is just an unexpected consequence of converting the keys to text (the webpages that they came from won't work without the admin login, and Github will only display HTML raw).

###Errata ####Bones and Muscles of the Back

  • Question 6: the answer that read "interior articular facet" should say "inferior articular facet"
  • Question 17: originally, the question asked about the attachment site for the quadratus lumborum, and the correct answer was marked as "mammillary processes of the lumbar vertebrae". This is incorrect. The question has been changed to ask for an attachment site of the transversospinalis muscles, which do in fact attach to the mammillary processes. For clarification, confer page 7 of the Osteology handout. (Thanks Lauren)

####Blue box

  • Question 4: spina bifida occulta is not an indication for a laminectomy.

Questions

Embryology

Question 16 I got one question about no. 16- which asks what happens if the primitive streak fails to regress- specifically why anencephaly was not correct.

Anencephaly is the result of the neural tube failing to close. The neural tube does begin to form a little bit after the primitive streak regression is normally complete, so there could potentially be a connection between the streak failing to regress and a malformed neural tube. However, we do know that the primitive streak failing to regress often results in a sacrococcygeal teratoma, which can deprive the fetal brain of blood (i.e., brain ischemia).

Also, I do not think anencephaly would typically be considered an "emergency" because the defect is so severe that nothing can really be done for the fetus. It almost always results in spontaneous abortion or stillbirth, and if the child is physically survives birth, they are essentially being kept alive by the brainstem and will almost always die within a few days.

So in short, anencephaly may be possible, but I think brain ischemia is a better answer.

Answer Key
Osteology & Myology of the Back
Your score: 100% (25 points out of 25)
Question #1 (1 point)
Which of the following bony prominences is generally the smallest?
Your answer:
spine Wrong Correct
Question #2 (1 point)
Which of the following regions of the spine is the most common site of
injury and dysfunction?
Your answer:
L5-S1 Wrong Correct
Question #3 (1 point)
Which of the following spinal curvatures is normally present at birth?
Your answer:
thoracic kyphosis thoracic kyphosis Wrong Correct
Question #4 (1 point)
The vertebrae are each derived from
Your answer:
portions of two different sclerotomes Wrong Correct
Question #5 (1 point)
A 29 year old male is admitted to the ER after he fell from a height of
twenty feet and landed in a seated position. Which of the following
courses of action should you take?
Your answer:
order an x-ray because the man likely has at least one compression
fracture in the vertebral bodies of the upper lumbar region Wrong Correct
Question #6 (1 point)
The zygapophyseal joint consists of:
Your answer:
the superior articular facet and the interior articular facet Wrong Correct
Question #7 (1 point)
One distinguishing feature of the cervical vertebrae from other
vertebrae is that
Your answer:
the spinous processes are mostly bifid Wrong Correct
Question #8 (1 point)
Why are the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae larger than in
other regions of the spine?
Your answer:
they are shortened, fused ribs Wrong Correct
Question #9 (1 point)
The transverse processes of L5 are important clinically because
Your answer:
they serve as an attachment site for the iliolumbar ligament Wrong Correct
Question #10 (1 point)
The anterior sacral foramina
Your answer:
transmit the anterior rami of the sacral spinal nerves Wrong Correct
Question #11 (1 point)
After ruling out other common causes, a patient with persistent lower
back pain is x-rayed. You discover that her L5 vertebra is fused
unilaterally with S1. This is an example of
Your answer:
sacralization Wrong Correct
Question #12 (1 point)
The sacral promonotory is a useful landmark when
Your answer:
measuring pelvic diameter Wrong Correct
Question #13 (1 point)
A caudal epidural would be performed
Your answer:
through the sacral hiatus and into the sacral canal Wrong Correct
Question #14 (1 point)
Which of the following structures imposes an anatomical limit on the
birth canal?
Your answer:
coccyx Wrong Correct
Question #15 (1 point)
The vertebra prominens is
Your answer:
typically C7 but T1 can be more prominent depending on the individual
Wrong Correct
Question #16 (1 point)
The head of the sixth rib articulates with
Your answer:
superior demifacet of T6 and the inferior demifacet of T5 Wrong Correct
Question #17 (1 point)
Which of the following serves as an attachment site for the
transversospinalis muscles ?
Your answer:
the mammillary processes of the lumbar vertebrae Wrong Correct
Question #18 (1 point)
All extrinsic back muscles except trapezius are innervated by
Your answer:
anterior rami of the spinal nerve Wrong Correct
Question #19 (1 point)
Upon physical examination of a patient with unilateral lower back pain,
you discover a hernia. Which muscle likely borders the site of the hernia?
Your answer:
latissimus dorsi Wrong Correct
Question #20 (1 point)
One way to differentiate the rhomboid muscles from the muscle that lies
immediately deep to them is that
Your answer:
only the rhomboids will attach to the medial border of the scapula Wrong
Correct
Question #21 (1 point)
Splenius capitis and splenius cervicis can be differentiated by
Your answer:
noting their respective positions of insertion relative to the levator
scapulae Wrong Correct
Question #22 (1 point)
Which of the following observations is useful in differentiating
spinalis from longissimus?
Your answer:
spinalis attaches to the spinous processes and longissimus attaches to
the transverse processes of the vertebrae Wrong Correct
Question #23 (1 point)
Semispinalis capitis can be differentiated from semispinalis cervicis by
virtue of the fact that
Your answer:
capitis inserts near the nuchal line and cervicis inserts near C2 Wrong
Correct
Question #24 (1 point)
A patient experiences myalgia when attempting to rotate his torso. Which
of the following is the most likely cause?
Your answer:
strain of the rotatores Wrong Correct
Question #25 (1 point)
Which of the following originates at the posterior superior iliac spine?
Your answer:
multifidus Wrong Correct
Answer Key
Back pain practice test
Your score: 100% (26 points out of 26)
Question #1 (1 point)
A patient comes into your office complaining of lower back and leg pain.
How would you determine whether the leg pain is sciatica?
Your answer:
look for a somatic dysfunction in the lumbosacral region and pain
following a corresponding dermatome Wrong Correct
Question #2 (1 point)
Which of the following patient scenarios pertaining to back pain is most
probable (or common)?
Your answer:
Patient A is able to return to work within three months Wrong Correct
Question #3 (1 point)
Which of following is not a red flag when diagnosing back pain?
Your answer:
family history of cancer Wrong Correct
Question #4 (1 point)
A 56 year old man presents with lower back pain accompanied by bilateral
sciatica. Which of the following should you first try to find out from
this patient?
Your answer:
whether there is any numbness or loss of bowel/bladder control Wrong
Correct
Question #5 (1 point)
In which of the following patients experiencing back pain is an imaging
study warranted?
Your answer:
a 70 year old woman who had a vertebral fracture 2 years ago Wrong Correct
Question #6 (1 point)
The muscles implicated in back pain most commonly
Your answer:
span several joints Wrong Correct
Question #7 (1 point)
In a typical lumbar strain, the pain
Your answer:
gets worse with activity and better with rest Wrong Correct
Question #8 (1 point)
How can hamstrings affect a lumbar strain?
Your answer:
they can cause overstretching of the erector spinae muscles Wrong Correct
Question #9 (1 point)
How would you differentiate a sprain from a strain?
Your answer:
palpation and understanding anatomy Wrong Correct
Question #10 (1 point)
One sign that differentiates iliopsoas syndrome from other causes of
back pain is
Your answer:
there is often new onset scoliosis and pelvic shift Wrong Correct
Question #11 (1 point)
Without a proper differential diagnosis, iliolumbar ligament syndrome
could be misdiagnosed as
Your answer:
an inguinal hernia Wrong Correct
Question #12 (1 point)
Radiculopathy is
Your answer:
the result of some other underlying problem Wrong Correct
Question #13 (1 point)
After ruling out common forms of mechanical back pain, you order an MRI
on your patient and discover that he has a herniated disc between L5 and
S1, the most common site of disc herniation. Which of the following
would you also expect to be affected in this patient?
Your answer:
Achilles reflex Wrong Correct
Question #14 (1 point)
A diagnosis of Lumbar spinal stenosis is confirmed by
Your answer:
MRI or CT Wrong Correct
Question #15 (1 point)
Sciatica is not normally associated with
Your answer:
scoliosis Wrong Correct
Question #16 (1 point)
Patients with piriformis syndrome do not
Your answer:
show neurological deficits Wrong Correct
Question #17 (1 point)
Lumbosacral radiculopathy can be differentiated from piriformis by
Your answer:
all of the above Wrong Correct
Question #18 (1 point)
In which of the following patients is an imaging study not warranted?
Your answer:
Patient C who is experiencing sciatica down to the knee, and shows new
onset scoliosis Wrong Correct
Question #19 (1 point)
Sciatica may sometimes be confused with
Your answer:
another condition caused by a myofascial trigger point in the gluteus
minimus Wrong Correct
Question #20 (1 point)
Pain caused by a problem with an intervertebral disc that does not
affect the nerve roots would likely be described by a patient as
Your answer:
dull and covering a large area Wrong Correct
Question #21 (1 point)
After ordering an MRI on a patient with lower back pain, you discover a
bulging disc. What is the next step in your diagnosis?
Your answer:
determine whether the bulging disc correlates to the physical findings
Wrong Correct
Question #22 (1 point)
When treating lower back pain, bed rest and inactivity are
Your answer:
not significantly helpful Wrong Correct
Question #23 (1 point)
When treating typical lower back pain, opioids
Your answer:
show little advantage to non-narcotic analgesics concerning pain relief
or recovery time Wrong Correct
Question #24 (1 point)
When treating lower back pain, OMT is correlated with
Your answer:
all of the above Wrong Correct
Question #25 (1 point)
Which of the following can result from back pain?
Your answer:
decreased mass of the paraspinal muscles, decreased strength of the
paraspinal muscles, increased risk of injury, progression to chronic
pain Wrong Correct
Question #26 (1 point)
When conventional treatment of back pain fails,
Your answer:
more aggressive approaches are required Wrong Correct
Answer Key
Vertebral biomechanics
Your score: 100% (35 points out of 35)
Question #1 (1 point)
Which of the following is not a mechanism involved in counterstrain?
Your answer:
active shortening of muscles Wrong Correct
Question #2 (1 point)
The key difference between trigger points and tender points is that
Your answer:
a trigger point elicits a radiating pain pattern when pressed Wrong Correct
Question #3 (1 point)
A serratus posterior superior trigger point may be confused with
Your answer:
tender points along the shoulder and arm due to referred pain Wrong Correct
Question #4 (1 point)
When treating patients using counterstrain, you should always start with
Your answer:
the most tender point Wrong Correct
Question #5 (1 point)
The primary function of the vertebral body is concerned with
Your answer:
load bearing Wrong Correct
Question #6 (1 point)
Which of the following would cause excessive lumbar lordosis?
Your answer:
excess abdominal adipose tissue, pregnancy, decrease in abdominal muscle
tone Wrong Correct
Question #7 (1 point)
A scoliotic patient will display a rib hump during Adam's test because
Your answer:
rotation and sidebending are coupled Wrong Correct
Question #8 (1 point)
Each zygophophyseal joint is innervated by
Your answer:
posterior rami from two spinal nerves Wrong Correct
Question #9 (1 point)
Generally, spinal ligaments limit
Your answer:
flexion Wrong Correct
Question #10 (1 point)
The ligamentum flavum is found
Your answer:
on the medial side of the lamina Wrong Correct
Question #11 (1 point)
Which of the following ligaments serves as an attachment site for the
trapezius muscle?
Your answer:
nuchal ligament Wrong Correct
Question #12 (1 point)
The iliolumbar ligament attaches to
Your answer:
the transverse processes of L4 and L5 Wrong Correct
Question #13 (1 point)
Which of the following muscles resist flexion of the spine?
Your answer:
splenius, longissimus, transversospinalis Wrong Correct
Question #14 (1 point)
The nucleus pulposus is deformed by all of the following except:
Your answer:
rotation Wrong Correct
Question #15 (1 point)
A patient is suffering from a herniated nucleus pulposus in the L2/L3
disc. Which spinal nerve is most likely affected?
Your answer:
L3 Wrong Correct
Question #16 (1 point)
Uncovertebral joints serve to limit
Your answer:
sidebending and rotation of the cervical spine Wrong Correct
Question #17 (1 point)
Which of the following is true concerning the erector spinae muscles?
Your answer:
they contract during extension and are stretched during flexion Wrong
Correct
Question #18 (1 point)
A vertebral unit is
Your answer:
two adjacent vertebrae and all associated elements between them Wrong
Correct
Question #19 (1 point)
You suspect a somatic dysfuction in a patient with mechanical back pain.
What should you look for first?
Your answer:
a rotated vertebral segment Wrong Correct
Question #20 (1 point)
Rotation of a vertebral segment can most easily be confused with
Your answer:
fullness of the erector spinae muscles Wrong Correct
Question #21 (1 point)
Which of the following correctly summarizes Fryette's laws
Your answer:
I: neutral position, group of vertebrae, opposite directions Wrong Correct
Question #22 (1 point)
You discover that your patient exhibits both Type I and Type II somatic
dysfunctions. You should:
Your answer:
treat the Type II first, as the Type I is likely compensatory Wrong Correct
Question #23 (1 point)
You have determined that your patient has a facet that is locked in the
open position. How would you arrive at this conclusion?
Your answer:
There would be noticeable sidebending and rotation when the patient
leans backward, toward the closed facet. Wrong Correct
Question #24 (1 point)
A patient exhibits sidebending to the right in the L1-L4 region in the
neutral position. How would you record this finding in her chart
according to the position of ease?
Your answer:
L1-L4 NSrRl Wrong Correct
Question #25 (1 point)
When examining a patient, you observe that the transverse processes of
L2-L5 are all posterior on the right. How would you record this finding
in his chart according to its motion restriction?
Your answer:
L2-L5 RNSrRl Wrong Correct
Question #26 (1 point)
You notice that your patient's L1 vertebra appears to be rotated to the
right. The rotation is not noticeable when she leans forward. How would
you record this finding in her chart?
Your answer:
L1 FRrSr Wrong Correct
Question #27 (1 point)
When testing a patient's range of motion, you discern that his rotation
is restricted both left and right. This condition
Your answer:
is likely a capsular pattern and warrants further diagnosis Wrong Correct
Question #28 (1 point)
Which of the following correctly describes Type II somatic dysfunctions?
Your answer:
facets engaged, single units, primary, requires first treatment Wrong
Correct
Question #29 (1 point)
Which of the following are useful in diagnosing thoracolumbar somatic
dysfunctions?
Your answer:
paraspinal palpation, postural exam, motion testing, location of tender
points Wrong Correct
Question #30 (1 point)
Which of the following correctly associates a plane of vertebral motion
with its corresponding type of motion and its axis of rotation?
Your answer:
sagittal plane, flexion/extension, transverse axis Wrong Correct
Question #31 (1 point)
Which of the following apply to the thoracic region of the spine?
Your answer:
kyphosis, relative flexion, coronal intervertebral facets Wrong Correct
Question #32 (1 point)
**YOUR HONOR, PLEASE STRIKE THIS QUESTION FROM THE RECORD.**
Dr. Beatty sent out an email saying that this slide was ambiguous and
that we wouldn't be tested on it.
----
Which of the following is true?
Your answer:
The coronal facets of thoracic vertebrae limit rotation. Wrong Correct
Question #33 (1 point)
You observe that your patient has pronounced neutral sidebending left
from L1-L5. Where would you expect to find a Type II somatic dysfunction?
Your answer:
any of the above Wrong Correct
Question #34 (1 point)
When performing segmental motion testing in the lumbar region of your
prostrate patient, you encounter resistance when applying pressure in
the posterior->anterior direction to the right transverse process of L2.
You do not note any other remarkable findings. What should you do next?
Your answer:
retest L2 in flexion and extension Wrong Correct
Question #35 (1 point)
Which of the following applies to single segment motion testing?
Your answer:
rotation decreases in the direction of ease Wrong Correct
Answer Key
Blue box practice questions
Other tests/info: https://gist.github.com/dbb/e288b710f4801cbd7cc6
Your score: 100% (13 points out of 13)
Question #1 (1 point)
When neurons of the central nervous system are damaged,
Your answer:
permanent, irreversible disability may result Wrong Correct
Question #2 (1 point)
Surgery is required when peripheral nerves
Your answer:
are severed Wrong Correct
Question #3 (1 point)
Following injury, a peripheral nerve cell will likely survive provided that
Your answer:
its cell body is unaffected Wrong Correct
Question #4 (1 point)
A laminectomy might be performed on which of the following patients?
Your answer:
Patient A, who has a benign meningioma, Patient B, who has a herniated
nucleous pulposus, Patient D, who has vertebral hypertrophy, Patient E,
who has spina bifida occulta Wrong Correct
Question #5 (1 point)
A 32 year old female is admitted to the ER following an automotive
accident. The first responders reported that she complained of severe
pain in the middle of her back. She is currently stabilized but
incoherent. What should you do next?
Your answer:
order an x-ray, because you suspect a compression fracture of one or
more thoracic vertebral bodies Wrong Correct
Question #6 (1 point)
A 32 year old female is admitted to the ER following an automotive
accident. The first responders reported that she complained of severe
pain in the middle of her back. She is currently stabilized but
incoherent. Why type of movement do you suspect was responsible for her
injury?
Your answer:
sudden, forceful flexion Wrong Correct
Question #7 (1 point)
A patient during your OB/GYN rotation gives birth to a boy with a large
cyst on his lower back. You think back to your foundations course and
immediately suspect spina bifida. With regard to the boy's prognosis,
you are most immediately concerned about
Your answer:
whether a meningomyelocele is present, because it carries the most
severe neurological complications Wrong Correct
Question #8 (1 point)
Which is true concerning cervical injury?
Your answer:
dislocation requires less force than fracture Wrong Correct
Question #9 (1 point)
A 54 year old male is admitted to the ER after he was rear-ended during
a traffic accident. He complains of severe neck pain, which is likely
caused by
Your answer:
rapid hyperextension of the neck Wrong Correct
Question #10 (1 point)
Severe hyperextension of the neck or spine could likely result in
Your answer:
fracture of the vertebral arches and processes, death, rupture of an IV
disc Wrong Correct
Question #11 (1 point)
Which of the following could ultimately result in paralysis or paraplegia?
Your answer:
a surgically occluded aorta, obstructive arterial disease, impairment of
the segmental medullary arteries, sustained sever hypotension, spinal
fracture, spinal dislocation, spina bifida Wrong Correct
Question #12 (1 point)
Which of the following matches a procedure with the correct location for
an adult patient?
Your answer:
lumbar puncture, immediately superior or inferior to the spinous process
of L4 Wrong Correct
Question #13 (1 point)
Anastomoses are significant because they
Your answer:
can prevent ischemia in the event of gradual arterial occlusion Wrong
Correct
Answer Key
Embryology
Your score: 100% (26 points out of 26)
Question #1 (1 point)
Eight days after a normal fertilization, an embryo implants at the site
where it was fertilized. This will result in
Your answer:
a serious complication and potential medical emergency Wrong Correct
Question #2 (1 point)
One reason that many sperm are required for fertilization is that
Your answer:
the zona pellucida must undergo many reactions before a single sperm can
penetrate it Wrong Correct
Question #3 (1 point)
During first cleavage
Your answer:
the paternal and maternal genomes intermix when the chromatid pairs
attach to the spindle Wrong Correct
Question #4 (1 point)
Cleavages
Your answer:
are early mitoses in the developing embyro Wrong Correct
Question #5 (1 point)
Compaction is an important watershed moment marking
Your answer:
the formation of embryoblasts and trophoblasts Wrong Correct
Question #6 (1 point)
Hatching normally occurs
Your answer:
in the uterus, after compaction Wrong Correct
Question #7 (1 point)
Due to a rare mutation, the epithelial cells of a woman's uterus have
deformed proteins. Which stage of pregnancy would this likely have the
greatest effect on?
Your answer:
implantation Wrong Correct
Question #8 (1 point)
The chief function of the syncytiotrophoblast is to
Your answer:
establish an interface between maternal blood and embryonic
extracellular fluid Wrong Correct
Question #9 (1 point)
The space in which the fetus will develop is the
Your answer:
amniotic cavity Wrong Correct
Question #10 (1 point)
Which of the following is true concerning the tissue immediately
exterior to the yolk sac and amnion prior to the lacunar stage?
Your answer:
it differentiates from the extraembryonic endoderm Wrong Correct
Question #11 (1 point)
The secondary yolk sac
Your answer:
has ejected the exocoelemic cyst Wrong Correct
Question #12 (1 point)
An embryologist decides to somehow tag all epiblast cells that
invaginate through the primitive streak with a short-lived radioisotope.
Where will she not likely be able to detect significant amounts of
radioactivity in the embryo?
Your answer:
ectoderm Wrong Correct
Question #13 (1 point)
Where is the germ disc?
Your answer:
suspended between the amniotic cavity and the yolk sac Wrong Correct
Question #14 (1 point)
Which is not true concerning somites?
Your answer:
they were once epiblast cells that failed to ingress through the
primitive streak Wrong Correct
Question #15 (1 point)
Which of the following pairs of structures are derived from the same
primary germ cell layer?
Your answer:
brain and fingernail Wrong Correct
Question #16 (1 point)
The primitive streak fails to regress completely in an embryo. Which
medical emergency should you be most concerned about in the developing
fetus?
Your answer:
brain ischemia Wrong Correct
Question #17 (1 point)
The primitive streak regresses prematurely in a developing embryo. Which
medical condition would the developing fetus most likely present?
Your answer:
caudal dysgenesis Wrong Correct
Question #18 (1 point)
An embryologist decides to tag epiblasts that ingress through the
primitive node with a long-lived radioisotope. Where will he find
radioactivity in the adult specimen, assuming it survives the procedure?
Your answer:
in the nucleus pulposus Wrong Correct
Question #19 (1 point)
The endoderm is formed by
Your answer:
epiblasts that ingress through the early primitive streak Wrong Correct
Question #20 (1 point)
What is the primary purpose of the primitive streak?
Your answer:
to establish three germ layers Wrong Correct
Question #21 (1 point)
Where do somites form?
Your answer:
paraxial mesoderm Wrong Correct
Question #22 (1 point)
Somite formation begins
Your answer:
at the cranial end Wrong Correct
Question #23 (1 point)
The ventral aspect of an adult's legs are mostly covered by
Your answer:
lumbar dermatomes Wrong Correct
Question #24 (1 point)
The thoracic cavity is ultimately formed by
Your answer:
lacunae that form in the lateral mesoderm Wrong Correct
Question #25 (1 point)
What statement best describes the relationship between MyoD and Myf-5?
Your answer:
They are redundant, parallel components in the myogenic pathway Wrong
Correct
Question #26 (1 point)
The first major step in myogenesis is
Your answer:
the specification of a mesenchyme into a somite Wrong Correct
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