Created
September 15, 2009 13:56
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Suppose that: | |
f(n)*f(n-2) - f(n-1)^2 = (-1)^(n-1) (1) | |
This is the same as the assumption, but for n-1. The inductive step requires us to show that it is true for n: | |
f(n+1)*f(n-1) - f(n)^2 = (-1)^n (2) | |
We notice that: | |
(-1)^n = -1*(-1)^(n-1) (3) | |
so we replace (-1)^(n-1) by the LHS of (1) and we get: | |
f(n+1)*f(n-1) - f(n)^2 = (-1) * [ f(n) * f(n-2) - f(n-1)^2 ] | |
and we distribute and rearrange to match terms, to get: | |
f(n-1) * [ f(n+1) - f(n-1) ] = f(n) [ f(n) - f(n-2) ] | |
But we know that f(n+1) - f(n-1) = f(n), and f(n) - f(n-2) = f(n-1), so we have: | |
f(n-1)*f(n) = f(n) * f(n-1) | |
which is obviously true, and therefore we have demonstrated the inductive step. |
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